Divorce And Remarriage:
What Does the Bible Teach about Who May Divorce and Remarry?

Divorce and remarriage have become common as civil law allows no-fault divorce. A husband or wife may dissolve a marriage for almost any grounds and remarry, regardless of the will of their spouse. The result is that many people marry without considering the teaching of the Bible. Is fornication (or adultery) the only Scriptural grounds for divorce, or does the gospel allow marriage to be dissolved for other grounds? Please consider this careful study of the Biblical teaching.

Introduction:

Many forces in society defend the practice of easy divorce.

Divorce laws in America are so lax that almost anyone can dissolve a marriage and remarry at any time for any reason. With "no-fault" divorce, a husband or wife can claim "incompatibility" or "irreconcilable differences" and get a divorce no matter how much their spouse objects.

What is right or wrong is determined by the Creator of the Universe.

Men will be judged according to whether or not we have conformed our lives to His will (John 12:48). Man's will often differs from God's (Prov. 14:12; Isa. 55:8,9; 2 Cor. 10:12,18; Lk. 16:15,18). Since the Bible reveals God's will, we must learn what it says about divorce and remarriage (2 Tim. 3:16,17; 1 Cor. 14:37; Eph. 3:3-5; 2 Pet. 1:21).

Part I: Does the Bible Say Divorce and Remarriage Is Moral or Immoral?

A. The General Teaching of the New Testament Is that Divorce is Contrary to God's Will, and that Remarriage Following Divorce Constitutes Adultery.

Note that there is one exception to this general rule, which we will discuss later. At this point we are discussing the general rule. The following passages present this teaching:

Matthew 19:3-9 (cf. Mark 10:2-12; Luke 16:18)

Jesus was asked whether divorce can properly be obtained for just any reason a person might have. He answered by appealing to the original marriage law.

Jesus taught that divorce itself, in general, is contrary to God's will. God made one man for one woman, indicating He did not intend for either to marry anyone else. He said they should cleave to one another and the two become one - there is no room in God's plan for a third party. God joins the man and woman, no human has the right to break that bond.

Further, whoever divorces his wife and marries again commits adultery (unless he does it because she has been guilty of fornication), and whoever marries her who has been divorced also commits adultery. (Mk. 10 adds that this rule also applies to the woman if she divorces her husband.)

To help understand the passage, read it with your name and your spouse's name, instead of "whosoever," etc.

Matthew 19:9 - If ____________ (you) divorces __________ (his wife), except for fornication, and marries another, _________________ (you) commits adultery; and whoever marries ___________ (her who is divorced) commits adultery."

Matthew 5:31,32

One who puts away his wife (for some cause other than fornication) causes her to commit adultery. This assumes that she remarries as described in the last part of the verse and as implied in the previous verse (the purpose of the "bill of divorcement" according to the law was so she could become another man's wife - Deut. 24:1ff).

By divorcing his wife, the husband puts her in the position where she is strongly tempted to remarry and if she does remarry, Jesus says she is guilty of adultery and so is the man she marries (in contrast to the Mosaic Law which tolerated the remarriage). Hence, the divorce itself is wrong and should be avoided. [Cf. Matt. 18:6,7]

Romans 7:2,3

A married woman is bound by law to her husband as long as he lives. This means that if she is married to another man while her first husband is alive, she is guilty of adultery. She is free to remarry without guilt only if her husband is dead.

(Some ask what "law" is this that joins the man and woman - God's law or man's law? It is the law which, when violated, makes the woman an adulteress. Clearly this must be God's law, and this conforms to what is taught elsewhere.)

1 Corinthians 7:10,11

A married woman should not depart from her husband nor he from her. Again, divorce itself is not the will of God.

But if she departs (if divorce has occurred), she must remain unmarried or else be reconciled to her husband. Clearly remarriage is not a scriptural alternative.

(Note: "depart" here is the same word elsewhere translated "put asunder" - Matt. 19:6; Mk. 10:9: The result of the action is that the woman is "unmarried.")

The teaching of the gospel on this point is unpopular with most people. Many people don't want to hear it preached. Jesus' own disciples considered it very strict (Matt. 19:10-12), still Jesus did not compromise it or apologize for it. He continued to teach and defend it and so must we.

B. To Apply These Passages Properly, We Must Understand Why the Second Marriage Is Forbidden and Why It Is Called "Adultery."

God clearly has the right to forbid any act if He so chooses, but it helps us apply the teaching when we understand His reasons for forbidding an act. What reason does God give for declaring the second marriage sinful, and why does He call it "adultery"?

Malachi 2:14-16

God hates putting away (v16). Again, divorce is contrary to God's will. Why? Because marriage is a covenant between a man and his wife (v14). God is a witness to that covenant, and He holds men to it (v14). If a man violates the covenant, he is dealing treacherously with his wife and God will hold him accountable. [Prov. 2:17; Ezek. 16:8]

Though this is an Old Testament passage, it helps us learn the definition of marriage, which has not changed. Marriage is, by God's definition, a solemn mutual agreement between a man and woman to live together as husband and wife. God holds them to that covenant bond and will not free them from it, even if people declare them to be free.

Remember this! The whole foundation of New Testament teaching regarding divorce rests on God's attitude toward marriage. When people weaken the barriers against divorce, they are weakening respect for marriage. Divorce matters because it destroys a marriage, and marriage is very important to God. Any view of divorce, which fails to respect marriage as God respects it, must be an unscriptural view.

This is why Jesus, in answering a question about divorce and remarriage, appealed to God's original intent regarding marriage (Matt. 19:3-9). God will respect and enforce His law regarding it, even when men disregard it!

Hebrews 13:4

The marriage covenant includes the right and obligation to have the sexual union only with the companion with whom we have a Scriptural marriage covenant. To have relations with anyone else is "fornication" or "adultery."

This too is part of the marriage covenant as God defines it. Marriage gives a man and his wife the right to the sexual union, but only with their lawful spouse.

[Ezek. 23; Jer. 3; Prov. 5:15-20; 6:29,32; 7:18-20; Ezek. 16:32; 1 Cor. 7:1-9].

Romans 7:2,3

In this marriage covenant, the woman is bound to her husband as long as he lives (cf. 1 Cor. 7:39). The marriage "bond" is a lifetime covenant commitment, and God holds people to the commitment they made, even if later they try to break it.

Note that the passage says a woman may be "bound" to one man, but "married" to another man! The "bond" refers to the marriage covenant that God holds you to. "Marriage" refers to the relationship you are living in as recognized by civil law and society. The two may be the same, but not necessarily. In this case, the woman was "bound" to one man but "married" to a completely different man!

That is why a woman is guilty of adultery if she is married to another man. Adultery, by definition, refers to sexual intercourse between two people, one of whom is bound by a marriage covenant to somebody else [see definitions in notes on Matt. 19:9].

This woman is an "adulteress" because she has been joined in a marriage covenant with one man, and God holds her to that covenant for life. But she is having sexual relations with another man, and that, by definition, is adultery. This passage defines adultery for us!

Note that anytime she has sexual relations with a man other than her scriptural mate it is adultery - as long as her first companion is living, the passage says. Whether she has just a single act of intercourse, or has an "affair" involving a number of adulterous acts over a period of time, or whether it is a second marriage to another man - in any case every time she has sexual union with another man the passage says she is guilty of adultery.

This is "adultery" because the woman is Scripturally committed to have the sexual union only with one man as long as he lives, but instead she is having it with another man. This is why it is proper to refer to the second marriage as "adulterous" or "living in adultery," just as it would be if she were living with him but not married to him (Col. 3:5-7).

Matthew 19:3-9

What reason is given why remarriage is forbidden and why it is called "adultery"? Because God declared man and woman should cleave to one another. He joins them (by witnessing their marriage covenant and holding them to it). He forbids their changing their mind and says no man can put their marriage asunder.

So, if man puts away his wife and marries another, the second marriage is "adultery" because he is having the sexual union with a second wife while God still holds him obligated to his covenant to have the sexual union only with his first wife.

Note again: the terms "marry" and "divorce" (or "put away," and also "husband" and "wife") as used here and elsewhere, refer to the relationship as viewed by society and the law of the land. In a first marriage, both God and society recognize the marriage commitment to exist between the man and woman. They are both "married" in the eyes of society and "joined" ("bound") in the eyes of God.

Society and civil law may then grant them a "divorce" (not for fornication) and they may "marry" again. Society and civil law then views them as free from their first marriage and entered into a second one, and the Bible calls this "divorced" ("put away") and "married" again. But though God uses these terms as society does, He does not recognize the divorce as making a valid end to the covenant commitment that He recognized in the first marriage. God still considers them "bound" or "joined" or held accountable for the commitment of the first marriage (v6).

There is a definite distinction between the covenant commitment (bond) which God recognizes and the divorce and marriage which civil law recognizes. (cf. Mk. 6:17,18)

Again, the second marriage is "adultery" because the person is still joined in God's eyes to his/her first spouse, but they are having a sexual relationship with a second spouse. That is adultery, and it will continue to be adultery every time they have the sexual relationship, because God has still "joined" them to their first spouse and He will not "put asunder" that bond.

1 Corinthians 7:10,11

This explains why, if a woman divorces her husband, she still has no right to remarry. She may get divorced in the eyes of civil law, and God calls it "divorce" and says she is now "unmarried." But that does not free her from her bond or covenant obligation to her first husband. Since she is still bound to her first marriage covenant, her only choice then is to be reconciled to her husband (the one God recognizes) or else remain unmarried.

Sexual relationship outside of a Scriptural marriage bond constitutes fornication (v2-5). Hence, if the woman divorces and remarries, that second marriage, as long as it lasted and as long as her first husband was still alive, would constitute adultery.

Understanding these principles will be vital to reaching proper applications and answers to other questions we will deal with.

[Note that adultery involves a sexual act - John 8:4; Heb. 13:4; Prov. 6:20-35. It is not just the act of divorcing and remarrying that is adultery.]

C. God Allows an Exception to the General Rule When One's Spouse Has Been Guilty of Fornication.

This exception is clearly stated in Matthew 19:9 (and 5:32).

"Whosoever shall put away his wife, except for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery" ("saving for the cause of fornication" - Matt. 5:32).

The question originally asked Jesus concerned the grounds or cause for which a man may divorce his wife (v3). In v9 Jesus clearly says there is no acceptable cause except if ones companion has been guilty of fornication.

Unlike the Mosaic Law, which Jesus admits tolerated divorce and remarriage for other causes, Jesus' teaching allows one and only one cause.

Note that the only one who is granted the right to divorce and remarry without being guilty of sin is the one who has been sinned against by his/her companion who committed fornication.

What is fornication?

Definitions: "illicit sexual intercourse in general" (Thayer); "every kind of unlawful sexual intercourse" (Arndt and Gingrich). Fornication includes any form of sexual intercourse with anyone other than ones scriptural spouse, regardless of whether that person be of the opposite sex or of the same sex. Note passages that explain the meaning:

1 Corinthians 7:2-5 - To avoid fornication, one is to satisfy the sexual desire with and only with "his own wife" or "her own husband." Our own marriage companion is the only one who has power over our body. If we satisfy this desire with anyone else, the passage says it would be fornication, whether it be with someone we are not married to, someone else's husband or wife, or someone else of the same sex (i.e., homosexuality). (See also Heb. 13:4).

Jude 7 - Sodom and Gomorrah gave themselves over to fornication. But Gen. 19 shows this refers to homosexuality (men wanted to lie with men, not with women) ["and going after strange flesh" has the significance of even going after...]. Therefore, homosexuality is a form of fornication, and would be scriptural grounds for one's companion to obtain a divorce and remarry.

Some say fornication would not include adultery (i.e., the case in which one who is married has relations with someone not their spouse). But the following passages use "fornication" to include extra-marital sex: 1 Cor. 5:1; Amos 7:17; Ezek. 16:8,15,26,29; Jer. 3:6,8. Jesus used "fornication" in order to include, not just extra-marital sex, but also premarital sex and homosexuality - any form of illicit sexual intercourse.

When a man and woman marry, they make a covenant to have the sexual relationship only with one another and with no one else (of the same or opposite sex) as long as they both shall live. If one companion violates that covenant by having sexual relations with any person other than their own spouse, he/she has violated the marriage covenant in such a way that God grants their partner the right to divorce them and remarry.

The New Testament teaching regarding divorce and remarriage can be summarized like this: When a man and woman marry, they enter into a lifetime covenant in which God binds or joins them, holding them accountable to keep this covenant. If there is a divorce for some cause other than fornication, God's will is violated; and if either or both remarry, the second marriage relationship(s) is (are) adultery because God still holds the people bound to the first marriage commitment. If during the first marriage, however, one companion commits fornication, then the other companion may choose to obtain a divorce and remarry without sin.

Part II: Does the Teaching of Jesus Regarding Divorce and Remarriage Apply to People Outside the Church?

Some people believe that Jesus' teaching regarding divorce and remarriage was addressed only to those who are in covenant relationship with Him (disciples, Christians, members of His church). It does not apply to people outside the church since they are not citizens in Christ's kingdom, not members of the body of which He is the head, etc.

It is argued that people outside Christ are condemned because they have not subjected themselves to Christ or because they have violated God's universal moral law; but until they become Christians, God does not notice or hold them accountable for violations of specific New Testament teachings such as divorce laws.

So it is concluded that, no matter how many times such people divorce and remarry before they become Christians, when they are baptized they just keep the companion they have then. But consider the following points:

A. Jesus Is Lord over All Men, Not Just Those in the Church.

Jesus is not just Head of the church or King of His kingdom. There are other positions He holds that show that all men are obligated to obey Him. He is:

Jesus is God (Deity)

John 1:1,14; 20:28,29; Phil. 2:6-8; Col. 2:9. If He possesses Deity, all people must obey His rules.

Jesus is King of kings and Lord of lords

Rev. 17:14; 1:5; 19:16. Hence, He possesses authority over all people on earth, even the highest of human authorities.

Jesus is Creator of all things

John 1:1-3; Col. 1:16. If He created all things, then all must obey Him (cf. Acts 17:24,30,31).

Jesus is Lord and Ruler of all

Matt. 28:18; John 3:31; Acts 10:36; Rom. 9:5; l0:12; Phil. 3:20,21; Eph. 1:21; John 17:2; Phil. 2:9-11. As Lord, He is Master or Ruler. His authority extends to all people, regardless of whether or not they are disciples.

Jesus is Judge of all

Acts 17:30,31 (spoken to unbelieving Gentiles); John 5:22-29; 2 Cor. 5:10; Matt. 25:31-46. Men will be judged according to the teachings of Jesus, even if they reject Him - John 12:48. If they do not obey the gospel, they will be destroyed - 2 Thess. 1:8,9.

Furthermore, the law of Jesus and the law of God are the same. What Jesus taught is what was revealed to Him from the Father (John 12:49f; 17:8,20,21,10; 16:15; Luke 10:16). Hence, people are obligated to obey Jesus' law because it is the law of God, and God's rule is universal.

It follows that all men are obligated to obey Jesus' laws. To deny the duty of all men to obey Christ's commands is to belittle the authority and exalted position of Christ, and also to deny the responsibility of all men to obey God the Father!

B. Jesus' Law Is a Whole, Complete Unit.

Those who are subject to Jesus' authority (that includes everyone), must be subject to the whole law.

James 2:8-12 - Like the Old Testament, the perfect law of liberty is a "whole." We must keep it all or stand condemned as transgressors (cf. Gal. 5:3).

Acts 3:22,23 - We must give heed to Jesus in all things whatever He says or we will be destroyed. This was spoken to people who were not His disciples.

(cf. Matt. 28:18-20; 4:4).

People outside the church are clearly subject to some of Christ's commands. Since the gospel is a wh whole system, they must be subject to it all.

Alien sinners are obligated to obey the gospel commands to believe, repent, and be baptized (Mark 16:15,16; Matt. 28:18-20; Acts 17:30; 2:38; 22:16; 10:48; 2 Thess. 1:8). If people are not subject to Jesus' law, then how can they be held accountable for refusing to believe, repent, and be baptized (Rom. 4:15)? But clearly all people are accountable to obey Jesus' commands to be forgiven. But these commands are just part of His law which must be taken as a whole. Hence, those outside the church are accountable to the whole system.

If Christ's laws are not binding on people who are outside the church, then how could these people be guilty of sin? 1 John 3:4 - Sin is transgression of God's law (not civil law). If people outside the church are not subject to Jesus' law, and Jesus' law is God's law, then how did these people become sinners (Rom. 4:15)?

The church consists of people who have been saved from sin (Acts 2:47; Eph. 5:23,25). When a person hears the gospel, believes, repents of sin, confesses, and is baptized for remission of sin, then Jesus' blood forgives his sins (Eph. 1:7; Rev. 1:5; Matt. 26:28; Rom. 5:6-9) and the Lord adds him to the church (Acts 2:47). But why would a person even need to do this if Jesus' law does not apply to him?

If people are not subject to Jesus' law, what sin can they be guilty of, how can they be held accountable for becoming a Christian, and why should they even enter the church? The fact they are obligated to obey some commands, proves they are accountable to the whole law.

Note: It is true that certain specific laws regulate only people in certain circumstances, such as laws for women, men, elders, parents, children, etc. (In this sense the Lord's supper is only for those in the circumstance of having been cleansed by Jesus' blood.) If we are not in the circumstance described, then we cannot obey that law, but this is because we are not in the circumstance rather than because we are not subject to the law as a whole. Jesus said there are people who are eunuchs and therefore the law of divorce and remarriage would not affect them (Matt. 19:10-12). But that is the only exception He gave. People who are married are in the circumstance such that the law applies to them.

C. Jesus' Teaching Regarding Divorce and Remarriage Was Addressed to People in General, Not Just to His Disciples.

Matthew 19:3-9 - To whom did Jesus address these instructions?

Note whom He addressed.

V2 - He was speaking to great multitudes.

V3,4 - His teaching on divorce was an answer to a question asked by Pharisees who were seeking to "try" Him. He addressed His answer "to them" (v4). Clearly, they were not His disciples but His enemies and opponents (disciples were later called Christians - Acts 11:26). (cf. Mk. 10:2; Lk. 16:14,15,18).

V5 - He quoted Gen. 2:24 saying "a man" should leave father and mother and cleave to his wife (cf. Mk. 10:7). We will soon see that this is universal in application. It includes all people everywhere.

V9 - "Whosoever" shall put away his wife and marry another commits adultery. NIV says "Anyone" who ... " Luke 16:18 in ASV and NASB says "Everyone that ... " (cf. Mark 10:11).

V10-12 - Jesus discussed the issue of to whom this teaching applied. He said there were exceptions to whom it did not apply - eunuchs! Hence, the only exceptions to Jesus' law of divorce and remarriage are unmarried people!

To those who say this is a "covenant" passage, I ask what "covenant" people it is limited to.

The "whosoever" cannot be just Jews under the Old Testament covenant since Jesus clearly admits that His teaching is different from that of Moses. It cannot be just Christians under the gospel since the Pharisees, to whom Jesus spoke this, were not disciples. Hence it cannot be limited to any "covenant" people. It must be a universal application to all people.

[If it be pointed out that Mark 10:10-12 says Jesus stated the teaching to the disciples in the house, I would point out that this is after He stated His general teaching on divorce. He had already made clear to His enemies that God's word was opposed to divorce. Hence, this does not help the case of those who believe Jesus' teaching against divorce does not apply to aliens.]

Matthew 5:31,32 - To whom does this teaching apply?

"Whosoever" (KJV), "Every one ... " (ASV, NASB), "Anyone" (NIV).

Clearly Jesus intended for His teaching about divorce and remarriage to be universal in application. There is nothing to imply He meant it only for His disciples. On the contrary the whole context shows that it applies to His enemies and non-disciples as well as to His disciples.

D. Jesus Based His Teaching Regarding Divorce on God's Original Marriage Law, Which Applied to All People.

Matthew 19:4-8 - Jesus based His teaching about divorce and remarriage on God's law "from the beginning," and quoted Gen. 2:24.

To whom did that law apply? This is Jesus' law and it is God's law. It is a broad as Jesus' authority and as God the Father's.

Further, this law was not a church law or church ordinance, but was originally given some 4000 years before the church began. How then can it be restricted only to people in the church?

This law was given to the first man and woman from whom all people descended. It must have been intended for the descendants of Adam and Eve, since it describes "a man" leaving father and mother (which Adam and Eve did not have). Hence, the instruction, as originally given, applied universally to all men.

But Jesus quoted the passage and said the same teaching is in effect today, and Paul also quoted it in Eph. 5:31. This principle is the basis of Jesus' teaching about divorce and remarriage. To whom does the principle apply?

The original principle applied to "a man." That expression must be just as broad in meaning today as it was when originally given. To whom did it apply then? Who is that "man"? All men, descendants of Adam and Eve. Since Jesus' divorce and remarriage teaching is based on that law, His teaching must apply to the same "man" - all men!

Further, God's marriage law is as broad in application as is human sexual reproduction. God's marriage law is the basis for limiting the sexual union to people who are married (one flesh). This law is used in 1 Cor. 6:16 to forbid sex outside marriage (cf. Heb. 13:4; 1 Cor. 7:2-5).

But, from the beginning, the command to reproduce was addressed to the people God made in His own image (Gen. 1:26-28), and that includes all people (Gen. 5:1-4; 9:6; etc.). Hence, anytime, anywhere people participate in the sexual act, they are bound by God's marriage law. It is not just for people in covenant relationship with God.

But this universal marriage law is the basis of Jesus' law about divorce and remarriage. It was later quoted in the New Testament (Eph. 5:31; 1 Cor. 6:16). If the original law was universal in application to all people, and if that law is the basis of Jesus' law of divorce and remarriage, it must have the same universal application.

If God's marriage law applies only to church members, consider the consequences.

It would not matter what non-Christians did regarding marriage or sexual conduct. Either God's marriage laws do apply to non-Christians or they do not. If the laws do not apply then it follows that:

* God does not recognize the marriages of non-Christians at all.

(Yet note Matt. 24:38f; John 4:16-18; Acts 24:24; Matt. 27:19).

[Would this mean that all people, when they become Christians, are unmarried in God's eyes and therefore must get married after baptism else their relationship would then become adulterous? See notes on 1 Cor. 7:14.]

* It does not matter what sexual conduct people outside Christ commit.

All laws regulating sexual conduct are based on the marriage law (Gen. 2:24; Heb. 13:4; 1 Cor. 6:16; 7:2-5). (We will later show that people outside Christ are held accountable for sexual conduct.)

It would furthermore follow that, when a person outside Christ has a sexual relationship, no matter whom he has it with or under what circumstances, it is not sin, for there is no sin where there is no law (Rom. 4:15). If aliens are not subject to the Jesus' divorce laws, it must be because they are not subject to God's marriage law, which in turn means they are free from all regulations regarding adultery, fornication, homosexuality, etc.! We should stop preaching to aliens about their adultery, etc.!

* If the marriage law does not apply outside Christ, why would an unbeliever be required to provide for his wife or care for his children (1 Tim. 5:8)?

* It also follows that, if a person is considering becoming a Christian, but does not like his companion, he should get rid of her and marry the person he wants before he is baptized.

On the other hand, if God's marriage law does apply to those outside Christ, then God's laws against sexual misconduct do apply to them, and so does Jesus' teaching regarding divorce and remarriage, because it is based on God's marriage law. It is all or nothing.

[Note that this argument is valid no matter what means a person uses to get aliens subject to God's marriage law. If they say they are subject to the gospel, to the "moral law," to the "law on the heart," the "law of love," or whatever law they say, if they admit people outside Christ are subject to God's marriage law, then Jesus' teaching about divorce and remarriage applies too.]

E. The Bible Expressly Mentions People Outside the Church Who Were Held Guilty of Violating God's Marriage Laws.

We have seen that God's laws against sexual immorality are based on His marriage law. But that same law is the basis of Jesus' teaching against divorce and remarriage. Hence, the marriage law, the laws regulating sexual conduct, and the divorce law all apply to exactly the same people. In particular, divorce and remarriage (without Scriptural grounds) Jesus said was adultery, a particular form of sexual misconduct.

Hence, if we can find passages saying aliens outside Christ are subject to God's laws on sexual conduct, then it must be because they are subject to God's laws on marriage. It will follow that they are subject to His laws on divorce and remarriage, since all stand or fall together.

Note these passages:

1 Corinthians 5:9,10

There are fornicators in the world (in contrast to the church). Hence, people outside the church are subject to God's laws on sexual conduct.

1 Corinthians 6:9-11

The Corinthians had been fornicators, adulterers, etc., before they were washed and justified by Christ. God held these people accountable for obeying His sexual laws even when they had been outside the church. This includes adultery, and divorce and remarriage constitutes adultery.

Colossians 3:5-10

Those who come into Christ should put off the conduct of the "old man" - i.e., the way they lived before they became Christians. This old life included fornication (v5), hence, God's sexual laws do apply to those outside Christ.

1 Timothy 1:9-11

People who commit the various sins listed are practicing that which is contrary to the "gospel." Included in the list are numerous moral issues, thus showing that "moral" laws are included in the "gospel."

In particular, people who commit "fornication" are violating the gospel. But the gospel is to be preached to "every creature" in "all the world" (Mark 16:15,16; 2 Thess. 1:8,9). Hence, all people must obey the gospel, including its prohibitions against fornication.

1 Timothy 5:8

One who will not provide for his own household is worse than an unbeliever. Yet if God's marriage laws do not apply to unbelievers, how can they be held accountable for their household?

All these passages clearly show that people outside the church are subject to God's laws regarding fornication and adultery. But unscriptural divorce and remarriage constitute "adultery."

Furthermore, if people are subject to God's sexual laws, this proves they are subject to His marriage law. And if people are subject to the marriage law, then they must be subject to Jesus' divorce and remarriage law, since it is also based on the marriage law.

God's laws regarding marriage (and therefore His laws regarding divorce and remarriage) apply to people outside the church just the same as they do to people in the church.

 

These lessons used by permission. Adaptations in the questions have been made by David Pratte with the permission of the author.